While walking back from McConnell (in the big quad at Pitzer) I overheard a conversation between two White students. One of the students was complaining about how they didn't want to go to their job as a language tutor and joked that because they were White, the students probably didn’t want to tutor with her anyways because she “doesn’t look like” she “speaks Spanish”. Then, the student went on to call this hypothetical situation "reverse racism".
Let’s start with the first part of this student’s statement. Not only is this comment completely ignorant, but it is also highly problematic. It perpetuates stereotypes by implying that most people who “look” Latino most likely are very good at speaking Spanish- which is just not true and also not fair. This stereotype enforces the idea that if a Latino individual doesn’t speak Spanish, they are somewhat of a failure. On another hand, it may also suggest that if Latino student does speak they are inclined to help other students with their Spanish homework.
As for the second part of the student’s statement, about reverse racism- THIS DOES NOT EXIST. How can a group (white people) that has so much power possibly be the victim of RACISM (not to be confused with prejudice). As S.E. Smith write’s on her piece, “7 Reasons Why Reverse Racism Doesn’t Exist”, the author writes, "In order to be racist, you need to possess two traits. The first is privilege: A structural, institutional, and social advantage. White people occupy positions of racial privilege, even when they are disadvantaged in other ways. White women, for example, consistently make more than black women, because they benefit from racial attitudes. Furthermore, you also have to have power: the ability, backed up by society, to be a strong social influencer, with greater leeway when it comes to what you do, where, and how.” So…how does that second part of the student’s comment make sense?
http://www.dailydot.com/opinion/reverse-racism-doesnt-exist/
Let’s start with the first part of this student’s statement. Not only is this comment completely ignorant, but it is also highly problematic. It perpetuates stereotypes by implying that most people who “look” Latino most likely are very good at speaking Spanish- which is just not true and also not fair. This stereotype enforces the idea that if a Latino individual doesn’t speak Spanish, they are somewhat of a failure. On another hand, it may also suggest that if Latino student does speak they are inclined to help other students with their Spanish homework.
As for the second part of the student’s statement, about reverse racism- THIS DOES NOT EXIST. How can a group (white people) that has so much power possibly be the victim of RACISM (not to be confused with prejudice). As S.E. Smith write’s on her piece, “7 Reasons Why Reverse Racism Doesn’t Exist”, the author writes, "In order to be racist, you need to possess two traits. The first is privilege: A structural, institutional, and social advantage. White people occupy positions of racial privilege, even when they are disadvantaged in other ways. White women, for example, consistently make more than black women, because they benefit from racial attitudes. Furthermore, you also have to have power: the ability, backed up by society, to be a strong social influencer, with greater leeway when it comes to what you do, where, and how.” So…how does that second part of the student’s comment make sense?
http://www.dailydot.com/opinion/reverse-racism-doesnt-exist/
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